Over at Hermeneutics and Human Dignity I recently raised a question or two about the lectionary. Among responses in ensuing discussion was this question:
"is it consistent to criticise the omission of some verses within a Biblical text in the lectionary, whilst appearing perfectly comfortable to omit half of the material that the lectionary actually does provide [e.g. by having two readings instead of four=psalm, OT, Ep, G]?"
I have said I will respond to that question here.
I want to think about it for a bit.
Any thoughts from you, in the meantime?
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2 comments:
constPrivate - Peter I don't know how to contact you. Can you send me your e-mail address please. Thought I may have seen you at the Requiem Mass on Friday. Bp Victoria preached well.
I do not think it advisable to give my email in a comment!
If you look up the Theology House website you will find an email contact there, if it is not mine, it is my administrator's who will fwd an email to me.
Cheers
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